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If f(n)=O(g(n)), then shouldnt f(n)∗log2(f(n)^c)=O(g(n)∗log2(g(n))) depend on the value of C?
| Author | Votes | Δ |
|---|---|---|
| Mitch Wheat | 10 | 0.00 |
Last visited: Sep 14, 2014, 5:07:29 AM