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Why can I prove ⟦ ( ∃ x. P ) ∧ ( ∃ x. Q ) ⟧ ⟹ ∃ x. (P ∧ Q)?
| Author | Votes | Δ |
|---|---|---|
| Manuel Eberl | 6 | 0.00 |
Last visited: May 1, 2015, 8:33:32 PM
| Author | Votes | Δ |
|---|---|---|
| Manuel Eberl | 6 | 0.00 |